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09-14-2004, 10:32 PM
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#1 | |||
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~The Loveliest Member~
 
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Just curious....
How can a woman say she lost her virginity to another woman...if infact there is no intercourse involved? I understand there is intimacy...but not infact the intercourse. So...can she infact consider this losing her virginity? Is virginity considered the first time you have any sexual encounters? Or do you actually have to go through the act of sexual intercourse in order for it be considered a loss of virginity? Anyway...can a woman take another woman's virginty?....just curious
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09-14-2004, 11:39 PM
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#3 |
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Scotlands finest SuperMod
 
Join Date: Nov 2003
Location: Glasgow Scotland Heritage: Scotsman; Pict
Posts: 40,095/21.69
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Re: Just curious....
Interesting question. I would say everyone has two sets of virginity, hetero and homo. The one that counts is hetero, A person that masturbates as their first sexual experience is still a virgin, no matter if they use a toy or not. So, if they engage in something similar with a member of the same sex, all they did was lose their homo virginity. The definition of virginity seems to me to imply heterosexual sex. I could probably say more, but this seems to make my point.
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09-15-2004, 12:39 AM
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#6 |
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Scotlands finest SuperMod
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Re: Just curious....
Hmmmmm......from the opinons of those above, the meaning of virginity has changed. Virginity as defined is first time sexual intercourse (genital penetration) with a person of the opposite sex. Any other form of sexual stimulation with a partner is in reallity, petting.
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09-15-2004, 01:47 AM
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#7 | |
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whore
 
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Re: Just curious....
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Not in my dictionary. A technical definition of loss of virginity would include a finger in the ear, so technically, yes. Of course, in the way we commonly use virgin we refer to having ones 'cherry popped' so I'd suggest perhaps whatever does the deed = no more virginity. Just like necrophilia doesn't necessarily refer to sex with the dead, virginity doesn't have to refer to sex. That all aside, IMO, though I consider sex to be sex without necessarily involving penetration, I do believe you're a virgin until you've done the penis-in-vagina deal... What a person wants to call themselves is up to them. |
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09-16-2004, 12:03 AM
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#8 | |
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whore
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Re: Just curious....
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But genital penetration does not have to be done with a penis, therefore my Chasing Amy reference. I've never actually asked a lesbian (or porn star) before, but I have to think fisting is a wee bit above petting ... Besides, I don't think many gay men would appreciate the "opposite sex" part of your definition. The one with whom I work has never been with, nor has any inclination to be with a woman, yet does not consider himself a virgin due to his male partner(s). On the other hand, I was a virgin until I had my "cherry" popped, which was traditional man/woman intercourse, so what the hell do I know? |
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09-25-2004, 02:46 PM
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#10 | |
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whore
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Re: Just curious....
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if you think a girl has taken her virginity by masturbating, or with tampons, things of that nature....then yes, a woman can take a woman's virginity. if you share the opinon of most...then no, intercourse has to be involved. however there is a fine line as to what girls think of has losing their virginity. theres a physical virgin, and a mental virgin....sometimes even girls that are molested or raped still consider themselves mentally, as virgins, because they havent consented to having intercourse with anyone....personally i think virginity is a mental thing....so yes, absolutely, a woman can take another woman's virginity. |
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Just curious....
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